Bill Spight wrote:The pragmatic meaning of "probability" in (3) is the "probability, given (0), (1), and (2)".
Yes, I see; this is key:
If we start counting the 1 million from after (2) -- her perspective -- X will be ~= half a million.
If we start counting the 1 million at (0) -- our perspective -- X will not be ~= half a million. (TJ's simulation).
I now rephrase the question, completely removing "pragmatics" (for my own sanity and clarity):
(0) 3 bowls: (

), (

), and (

).
(0a) We start our counter X = 0.
(1) Suppose you randomly pick a bowl, then take one of the 2 stones out from the bowl.
(2) This stone turns out to be

.
(3a) IF second stone in the bowl is also

, we increment X.
(4) Go back to (1) -- NOT (0) -- repeat this 1 million times. What is the approx. value of X after 1 million iterations ?
Now I see it clearly -- (2) SUBSTANTIALLY lowers X from ~= half a million.

(I still think the original wording is not as good as in the Monty Hall problem --
there, they ask "should the contestant switch" instead of "what is the probability of..." ?
I think this way of asking "should the contestant switch" is less ambiguous than the "pragmatics" of "what is the probability of...".

)
( Sanity check for myself: if WE do the experiment 1 million times, the little green alien
will not be invited approx. 333,333 times.

This is the part SHE does not know.
Conversely, for HER to be invited 1 million times, WE would have to repeat 1.5 million times. )