Philosophy: 'is' and 'ought'

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Re: Philosophy: 'is' and 'ought'

Post by KGO »

Monadology wrote:But here's where you're confusing me. If Toge is asking about unconditional imperatives, then they clearly can't be derived from facts, otherwise they would be conditional on those facts.


That's exactly right, and that is what the is-ought problem points out. Categorical imperatives are by definition not derived from facts.


Even a categorical imperative is not unconditional. The categorical imperative is contingent on the existence of beings which form maxims.


Then it is not a categorical imperative, which makes sense, since categorical imperatives do not exist.


Ok, but I gave an example of an end that "ought" to happen. What's tricky here is that you are only taking as "ought" some kind of strict unconditional "ought." But of course such an "ought" couldn't derived from a fact, otherwise it would be conditional on that fact. In this sense, claiming that you can't derive an "ought" from an "is" is pretty trivial.


Exactly right once again. It's not really even a claim. It is just pointing it out. Kant's categorical imperative is false because the "ought" does not follow from his conditions.

1. You can only say X if you know X.
2. X is not Y.
Therefore: There are no X's.


Correct. You cannot derive from anything, except from an "is", so that makes perfect sense. "Ought" (X) cannot be derived without knowing "ought" (X), which is not an "is" (Y) and therefore, does not exist. Commonly refered to the is-ought problem.

I don't even need to point out how problematic this argument is. But let's change the conclusion to something not so strong:

1. You can only say X if you know X.
2. X is not Y.
Therefore: You can't derive X from Y.

Even this doesn't follow! I could know X because of Y even if it isn't Y. We make this kind of inference every day! Granted, for these inferences we need a connecting premise, e.g.


No, you cannot derive X from Y because you cannot derive X without knowing X. You ignored the first step. Of course, it's nonsensical because "ought" is a nonsensical concept in the first place.


1. There is a loud whistling noise outside my door.
2. If there is a loud whistling noise outside my door, that means the tea is ready.
Therefore: The tea is ready.

Now, loud whistling noises are not the readiness of tea! Not at all! Yet somehow we're getting from one thing to another thing when those things aren't identical.


The readiness of the tea is an "is". "Ought" is not an "is". The whistling noise implies that the tea is ready. Nothing implies what you "ought" to do because you don't know what the conditions are: You don't know why the "is" you're trying to derive from matters. And keep in mind, I'm not saying you just can't know them. I'm saying they don't exist because "ought" cannot be derived from "is" and therefore does not exist.

So what it is incumbent on the proponent of 'oughts' is to provide a premise along the lines of the second premise in this argument. It is incumbent on the denier to show why this kind of connecting premise is impossible when it comes to 'is' and 'ought' (presumably by showing that all such premises require a further 'ought' to establish). So far, it's not clear you've done so.


I have.

On the other hand, in Kantian morality such a connecting premise is posited: namely, that 'oughts' are a result of the rational intentionality inherent in agency. If you will to perform an end, you are bounded rationally to employ some means to that end. Otherwise there is a strict volitional incoherence in your willing.


Just another hypothetical imperative where "must" has been exchanged for "ought". It's not a categorical imperative. There is no reason why the rational intentionality inherent in agency "ought" to matter. It does not imply that you "ought" to do something any more than any other "is". It is not a categorical imperative. It is not an "ought".

You can define "ought" however you will, I guess, but you've lost the argument about whether you can derive categorical imperatives from an "is" and it completely trivializes Kant's work (although it was terrible to begin with). I can define "ought" as the result of my mom's opinions and go around saying I ought to do whatever my mom says, but it does not make me a great philosopher. I can define "ought" as the result of god's word, but it would make me a humongous fucktard. ;-)
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Re: Philosophy: 'is' and 'ought'

Post by daniel_the_smith »

hyperpape wrote:
daniel_the_smith wrote:I wouldn't have said it that way, but I have some sympathy for KGO's position. Historically, when a particular group of philosophers figure out what they're talking about they form an actual science (e.g., astronomy, biology, math, physics, etc) and cease being philosophers. Over time, that tends to leave people who can't figure out what they're talking about in the field of philosophy. :) Or, another way to say the same thing is that philosophy is the study of things we don't actually understand well enough to study...
This is actually remarkably close that something I (as someone who was previously aiming for a Ph.D. and academic job in philosophy) have often said. Actually, I stole it from a professor of mine, if you want more authority :) .

Anyway, you can think of philosophy as studying problems that we don't yet have a settled method for answering. So in a sense, philosophy attracts people who can't figure out what they're talking about. ...


That was a paraphrase of something I read somewhere, so maybe we share sources. ;) I think a lot of what is currently philosophy will be taken over by/turn into cognitive science or AI theory in the next 30 years or so.

hyperpape wrote:But it's obvious that unless you think human knowledge has reached a plateau where we can make no further progress on the questions that we don't yet know how to answer, some time has to be spent banging our heads against those intractable and confusing questions.


I agree. But I have gotten the impression that modern philosophy is often more about publishing "interesting" things than finding the right answers and dissolving the wrong questions.

KGO wrote:... you've lost the argument about whether you can derive categorical imperatives from an "is" ...


I don't seem to recall anyone making that argument. Additionally, your... abrasive... approach is somewhat out of character for these forums...
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Re: Philosophy: 'is' and 'ought'

Post by KGO »

I don't seem to recall anyone making that argument. Additionally, your... abrasive... approach is somewhat out of character for these forums...


The whole thread is about whether or not you can derive an "ought" from an "is". That is the is-ought problem.

Sorry about my abrasive approach. I'm not particularily trying to be, but then again, I've never been accused of coddling people.
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Re: Philosophy: 'is' and 'ought'

Post by daniel_the_smith »

KGO wrote:Sorry about my abrasive approach. I'm not particularily trying to be, but then again, I've never been accused of coddling people.


The way it works is that unless you take great effort not to be abrasive, you'll be abrasive. (And if you're going to be abrasive, see Helel's posts for how to at least be funny at the same time.) :)
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Re: Philosophy: 'is' and 'ought'

Post by Mike Novack »

KGO wrote:You can define "ought" however you will, I guess, but you've lost the argument about whether you can derive categorical imperatives from an "is" and it completely trivializes Kant's work (although it was terrible to begin with). ........ I can define "ought" as the result of god's word, but it would make me a humongous fucktard. ;-)


Not really. But if you tried to define ought as "the result of god's word" what do you make of the statement "I ought to obey the dictates of this god". That is surely a well formed question in ethics.

IMHO the worst problem with Kant (or the Neo-Kantians in general) is that deontology (rights and duties) has a great deal more to say in the negative than the positive. In other words, too much glossing over the difficulty of deriving positive duties. I do not blame Kant for this (not seeing the difficulties) as the math/logic of his day (and he was officially on the math faculty) had not yet run into the problems assoicated with "assignment". But I do blame current Neo-Kantians since they should be at least somewhat aware of the issues (now over 100 years old).

To put the problem simply --- If Y has a right to Z and Y lacks Z, on what basis are you assigning the duty to make Z available to any particular X. It's not as simple as you might at first think and being able to determine that SOME X among all the X's has this duty isn't enough to pin the duty on any X. You'd need another axiom that says "you can do that" (pick any X at random).
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Re: Philosophy: 'is' and 'ought'

Post by Mr. Mormon »

jts wrote:If you could churn out material of a higher intellectual quality than Plato, Kant, or Wittgenstein, then people would pay attention to you and you would be hot detritus. If you can't, you should take the rhetoric down a notch.
That is nonconstructive. Perhaps we shouldn't compare pros at all either.
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Re: Philosophy: 'is' and 'ought'

Post by KGO »

Mike Novack wrote:Not really. But if you tried to define ought as "the result of god's word" what do you make of the statement "I ought to obey the dictates of this god". That is surely a well formed question in ethics.


:roll:

Mike Novack wrote:IMHO the worst problem with Kant (or the Neo-Kantians in general) is that deontology (rights and duties) has a great deal more to say in the negative than the positive. In other words, too much glossing over the difficulty of deriving positive duties. I do not blame Kant for this (not seeing the difficulties) as the math/logic of his day (and he was officially on the math faculty) had not yet run into the problems assoicated with "assignment". But I do blame current Neo-Kantians since they should be at least somewhat aware of the issues (now over 100 years old).

To put the problem simply --- If Y has a right to Z and Y lacks Z, on what basis are you assigning the duty to make Z available to any particular X. It's not as simple as you might at first think and being able to determine that SOME X among all the X's has this duty isn't enough to pin the duty on any X. You'd need another axiom that says "you can do that" (pick any X at random).


Surely, the worst problem with Kantianism and its derivations is that its premise is false.
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